“ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ” in “Aristotle,” “Moses,” and Paul
Quick History of a Greek Frozen Phrase
Around 300 years before Jesus, the phrase “ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ” showed up in written Greek as something Aristotle supposedly wrote.
Half a century later or so, the phrase “ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ” showed up in the Bible as the Hellene translation for the Hebrew זכר ונקבה, a recurring phrase in the first of the five books of Moses.
After a couple of centuries of “ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ” being biblical, the phrase shows up in the gospel of Mark and in the gospel of Matthew as Jesus quoting Genesis.
A few decades later, Paul writes to some of his fellows in the assemblies in Galatia to play on the phrase “ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ.”
Some English Frozen Phrases Illustrated
In this post, I’ll say just a bit more about the specific points of Greek literary and translational origins picked out so far. Now, I’d like us to look at how English phrases sometimes are used as “frozen phrases.”
Here are some on the tip of my tongue, just off the top of my head, like “bread and butter,” “peanutbutter and jelly,” “stars and stripes,” “boys and girls,” “cats and dogs,” “Jack and Jill,” “Tom and Jerry,” “Ben and Jerry’s,” “Bonnie and Clyde,” “pen and paper,” “planes, trains, and automobiles,” “Father, Son, and Holy Ghost,” “man and wife,” “husband and wife,” “Lucy and Ricky,” “horse and carriage,” “love and marriage,” “war and peace,” “the good, the bad, and the ugly,” “facebook and twitter,” “stocks and bonds,” “highs and lows,” “ups and downs,” “God and country,” “nickel and dime,” “heart and soul,” and “so forth and so on.”
The frozen phrases I’m rapidly recalling here all include the conjunction and. And I’m only wanting to suggest that these are imprinted in my brain, in my ears and in my eyes, from how I’ve encountered written English and spoken English.
And I’m trying to make only the necessary observations here. First, for example, it should be clear that there is no necessary gender order to this when there are gendered pairs. “Lucy and Ricky” has her coming first; “Jack and Jill” has him coming first. Second, the positive term sometimes comes first as in “highs and lows” while the negative term comes first at other times as with “war and peace.”
Third, it should be obvious that reversing the nouns in any of these frozen phrases makes for a very odd sound. Fourth, written English reinforces, further freezes, what sounds right. To illustrate, we might use the google ngram viewer that allows us to check the phrases written in books that are in the library, or corpus, of google books.
The frozen phrases “bread and butter” and “stars and stripes” and “peanutbutter and jelly” appear in print with the nouns in a very predictable and set or frozen order. Nobody has published “jelly and peanutbutter” in print in a way that the ngram viewer will show:
“Male and Female” as a Frozen Phrase Relative to Others
So in English there are “male and female” gendered frozen phrases, like that frozen phrase “male and female.” I seem to recall at Joel Hoffman’s blog a conversation about whether “man and wife” or “husband and wife” is most prominent, and thus I’m including those two frozen phrases in my google ngram viewer illustration below too.
What I’m more interested in is how equal or unequal the sexes appear to show up in the phrases. The noun “wife” does get used, for example, as a counterpart to “husband.” This makes the phrase “man and wife” arguably a little stranger. Nobody says “wife and man” or “man and husband” or even “woman and husband.” We could speculate all day as to why not or when we might want to say those phrases.
Since we bring up “woman” I do want to comment, again (since I say it a lot), that “wo-man” is a marked noun in English. So is “fe-male.” So is, when we spell it out, the word “s-he.” The unmarked nouns “man” and “male” and “he” get marked with a pre-fix to change the meaning to the feminine version of the default masculine root noun. In frozen phrases such as “male and female” and “men and women” there’s an inherent imbalance that suggests the masculine default unmarked root is the essential noun in the phrase, and the complementary feminine version is, while “equal” to the male counterpart, is just supplemental and simply, well, a subordinate complement. It’s good, then, for us to think about these things, and to talk about them, lest they are under the surface of our consciousness. For some of us language seems or feels somehow to reflect Reality or Nature or God’s Design. It doesn’t.
And our language tends to freeze in phrases. It’s just the way it is. So let’s look at how we tend to read the “male and female” related phrases:
Some of the frozen phrases are clearly more popular than others. Some were more popular at different points in publishing history. (I took out of the mix here one frozen phrase with plural nouns – “men and women” – because it is so much more frequently used than the others – as you’ll see if you click here.)
As my son and my daughters grow into adulthood more in this world, I long for English counterpart terms like the Greek ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ and the Hebrew זכר ונקבה. These phrases do not have a default sex for the sex, the gender, of adult human beings the way our English “men and women” and “male and female” do. So I do tend to try to use “boys and girls” even when referring to adults, even though I always have to explain what I mean since the term applies to children not grown ups. I also like “masculine and feminine” since the phrase includes equal counterparts that does not place one over the other. (Unfortunately, “masculine and feminine” in English is not nearly as often used as “boys and girls” is, and click here to see that fact).
“ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ” in “Aristotle,” “Moses,” and Paul
Fortunately, many ancient Greek texts are today digitized by many different scholars, just as much more contemporary English texts are by google, so that we can view frozen phrases as they develop and evolve. It seems the first instance, at least one of the first uses, of “ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ” appears in “Aristotle’s” Physiognomonics. It’s a treatise that tries to sound a lot like Aristotle, as he might make judgments about the Nature of Things in themselves. The Aristotle-like author writes (on what are Bekker pages 809a – 809b) the following:
Νυνὶ δὲ πρῶτον πειράσομαι τῶν ζῴων διελέσθαι, ὁποῖα αὐτῶν προσήκει διαλλάττειν πρὸς τὸ εἶναι ἀνδρεῖα καὶ δειλὰ καὶ δίκαια καὶ ἄδικα. διαιρετέον δὲ τὸ τῶν ζῴων γένος εἰς δύο μορφάς, εἰς ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ, προσάπτοντα τὸ πρέπον ἑκατέρᾳ μορφῇ. ἔστι δὲ ὅμοια…. τὰ δὲ ἄρρενα τούτοις ἅπασιν ἐναντία, τὴν φύσιν ἀνδρειοτέραν καὶ δικαιοτέραν εἶναι γένει, τὴν δὲ τοῦ θήλεος δειλοτέραν καὶ ἀδικωτέραν.
This was put into English under the direction of W. D. Ross as follows:
I WILL now first attempt to make a division of animals I by the marks in which they are bound to differ if they are respectively brave or timorous, upright, or dishonest. We have to divide the whole animal kingdom for this purpose into two physical types, male and female, and to show what mental attributes are congruous with each of these types…. The male is the opposite of all this: his is the braver and more upright nature, whilst the female is the more timid and less upright.
One reason this sounds so much like Aristotle is because Aristotle wrote a whole lot about animal sex, and he divided the various species of animals and compared and contrasted them with human beings, always keeping separate males and females, men and women. Another reason the writer of this particular Greek text sounds like Aristotle is the method of writing; there is division, the binary, the constant essentializing of Nature by separation which serves to map out the hierarchy inherent in Nature. A male and female may be equal in species but the female is always inferior, or at the very least under the male in role. (And just to be clear for all those learning Greek and its translation into English, I’m pretty sure that the Pseudo Aristotle is not intending θῆλυ as “breast” as if that part of her anatomy is opposite the male’s somehow.)
What the pseudo Aristotle is writing when writing “ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ” is that there are two different kinds, non overlapping, that can and should be mapped out separately in Nature, by Nature. There is the binary. There is the dichotomy. There is fundamentally opposition, essentially difference.
In the context, the pairing is more akin to “light and darkness” and “good and evil” and “highs and lows” and “ups and downs,” than it is to “heart and soul” or “peanutbutter and jelly” or “bread and butter” or “stars and stripes.”
Then, much later in history, a good bit far from Athens, in Alexandria the Great City named after Alexander the Great, there comes a real shift in the meaning of “ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ.” The shift is Semitic. It comes with the first book of Moses. Of course, as mentioned, in Hebrew we read the phrase זכר ונקבה. There is the emphasis not on separation but on relation. The focus on sex is not on difference so that there is procreation. Rather it is on difference in mixture in conjoinment, so that there is procreation and creation. It’s less obvious science and much more akin, it would seem, to art. The Greekiness becomes less Aristotelian-like and much more Hebrewish. I’m talking now about the Septuagint. The Hellene in the translation of the Hebrew Bible is much more poetic, much more epic, more Homer and Sappho and Hesiod than like that of the patriarchal Socrates, Plato, Aristotle, and Alexander. The method for language, for naming, is substantially unlike the Aristotelian binary.
The result is that there is what we call Genesis 1:27, 5:2, 6:19-20, 7:2-3, 7:9, and 7:16 respectively, as below here. If we listened to the Greek read aloud, then we’d hear the poetry. Even the verb of Genesis 1:1 is poetry, literally: ἐποίησεν /ePOIEsen/. When we see it we might view the creativity:
καὶ ἐποίησεν
ὁ θεὸς τὸν ἄνθρωπον
κατ’ εἰκόνα θεοῦ ἐποίησεν αὐτόν
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
ἐποίησεν αὐτούς
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
ἐποίησεν αὐτοὺς
καὶ εὐλόγησεν αὐτούς
καὶ ἐπωνόμασεν τὸ ὄνομα αὐτῶν Αδαμ
ᾗ ἡμέρᾳ ἐποίησεν αὐτούς
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
ἔσονται
….
κατὰ γένος αὐτῶν
δύο δύο ἀπὸ πάντων
εἰσελεύσονται πρὸς σὲ
τρέφεσθαι μετὰ σοῦ
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
…ἑπτὰ ἑπτά
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
…δύο δύο
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
…ἑπτὰ ἑπτά
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
…δύο δύο
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
δύο δύο
εἰσῆλθον πρὸς Νωε εἰς τὴν κιβωτόν
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
καθὰ ἐνετείλατο αὐτῷ ὁ θεός
καὶ τὰ εἰσπορευόμενα
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ
ἀπὸ πάσης σαρκὸς εἰσῆλθεν
καθὰ ἐνετείλατο ὁ θεὸς τῷ Νωε
καὶ ἔκλεισεν κύριος ὁ θεὸς
ἔξωθεν αὐτοῦ τὴν κιβωτόν
The frozen phrases in the Hebrew of the first book of the five books of Moses, and then in the Hellene of the same, make together as a unit the two.
The emphasis on unity is illustrated when two Greek gospel writers have Jesus quoting Genesis 1:27. Mark 10 and Matthew 19 make the emphasis very strong by literary, rhetorical means. The context is on whether the words of Moses allowed for marital separation. Joshua or Y’Hosea (or Jesus, a Greekified version of the nickname Moses gave his assistant), speaking Greek, would have Greek readers go back to the words of Moses on how humans were created unified: ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ.
Paul picks up this frozen phrase in a rather startling way. He invokes the name of this Jesus/Joshua/Y’Hosea to say:
οὐκ ἔνι
Ἰουδαῖος οὐδὲ Ἕλλην,
οὐκ ἔνι
δοῦλος οὐδὲ ἐλεύθερος,
οὐκ ἔνι
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ·
πάντες γὰρ ὑμεῖς εἷς ἐστε
ἐν χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ.
This is what we call Galatians 3:28. Of course, Paul’s not translating from Hebrew to Greek. Rather his Hebraic Hellene is minimizing any difference in the language. Writing in Greek, he’s sounding Semitic. The emphasis is not on separation but on relation, not on division but on unity. He goes so far to deconstruct any difference that Greek readers might sense in and within the frozen phrase ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ.
The Reception of “ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ” in Contemporary Sexist Theology
In English translation, the frozen phrase gets used a lot today by people writing about home and church roles. In English, it is “male” / “fe-male” that gets discussed.
Those with a complementarian theological bent like Wayne Grudem, for example, will quote Moses and then Paul writing it. Here’s his emphasis on pages 256-57 and 458-59 of his magnus opus, Systematic Theology:
Because God in himself has both unity and diversity, it is not surprising that unity and diversity are also reflected in the human relationships he has established. We see this first in marriage. When God created man in his own image, he did not create merely isolated individuals, but Scripture tells us, “male and female he created them” (Gen. 1:27). And in the unity of marriage (see Gen. 2:24) we see, not a triunity as with God, but at least a remarkable unity of two persons, persons who remain distinct individuals yet also become one in body, mind, and spirit (cf. 1 Cor. 6:16-20; Eph. 5:31). In fact, in the relationship between man and woman in marriage we see also a picture of the relationship between the Father and Son in the Trinity. Paul says, “But I want you to understand that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a woman is her husband, and the head of Christ is God” (1 Cor. 11:3). Here, just as the Father has authority over the Son in the Trinity, so the husband has authority over the wife in marriage. The husband’s role is parallel to that of God the Father and the wife’s role is parallel to that of God the Son. Moreover, just as Father and Son are equal in deity and importance and personhood, so the husband and wife are equal in humanity and importance and personhood. And, although it is not explicitly mentioned in Scripture, the gift of children within marriage, coming from both the father and the mother, and subject to the authority of both father and mother, is analogous to the relationship of the Holy Spirit to the Father and Son in the Trinity.
But the human family is not the only way in which God has ordained that there would be both diversity and unity in the world that reflect something of his own excellence. In the church we have “many members” yet “one body” (1 Cor. 12:12).
….
Equality in status among God’s people is also emphasized by Paul in Galatians. “For as many of you were baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus” (Gal 3:27-28)
… If human beings are to reflect the character of God, then we would expect some similar differences in roles among human beings, even with respect to the most basic of differences among human beings, the difference between male and female. And this is certainly what we find in the biblical text.
Paul makes this parallel explicit when he says, “I want you to understand that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a woman is her husband, and the head of Christ is God” (1 Cor. 11:3). Here is a distinction in authority that may be represented as in figure 22.1.
Just as God the Father has authority over the Son, though the two are equal in deity, so in a marriage, the husband has authority over the wife, though they are equal in personhood. In this case, the man’s role is like that of God the Father, and the woman’s role is parallel to that of God the Son. They are equal in importance but have different roles.
The quotations of Genesis and of Galatians above are from the Revised Standard Version. In Grudem’s most recent book (discussed here at BLT here, here, and here), he quotes the same excerpts but from the English Standard Version that he has so much contributed to. The main alteration with respect to these couple of verses is only for Galatians, where the ESV has “there is no male and female” instead of “there is neither male nor female” of the more literary RSV. Of course, Grudem does not need the literary of the Hebrew Bible or of Paul’s Hebraic Hellene letter. He does not need the phrase “ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ” as a unity without separation or difference. He needs difference, a hierarchical binary, where “male and fe-male” has the one in the default position as head of household and as leader of the church. The Other he has to have as the complement to the unmarked one. This is God-ordained and is as Natural as the divisions of Aristotle, even a fake Aristotle.
would you suppose that euphonie may be the key to these frozen phrases, To illustrate; soud and body does not roll off the tongue in the same way body and soul does. Would you not think that †he spoken that is, the oral, the shouted aloud language has music that we appreciate and feel in the same way we understand a heartbeat or a stroll down the street. Do you see what I mean?
Beautiful, Kurk!
Help us out a little – could you please transliterate that frozen phrase in Greek and Hebrew? And are there any English cognates of those Greek words?
A few years ago, I started deliberately using the phrases “women and men” and (especially in a religious context)”sisters and brothers“, as a small feminist act… and apparently I wasn’t the only one. I’ve been doing it long enough now that the “normal” phrasing often sounds odd to me.
Knowing that Aquinas was hugely influenced by Aristotle… would he have been influenced by the pseudo-Aristotle text you cite, do you happen to know? (or does one of our readers?) Given how central Aquinas is to Roman Catholic theology, this is an interesting question.
On what grounds do you conclude that Paul is being more Hebrew/relational than Greek/dichotomous in Gal 3:28? It looks to me as if he’s deliberately invoking a set of hierarchically understood opposites, which seems more Greeky based on your argument.
I’ve seen a number of arguments that rest heavily on that “and”/kai rather than “or”/oude(?) in the male/female pair. You’ve argued fairly convincingly that this phrase is a “frozen phrase”: how do the other phrases (greek and Jew, slave and free) look according to the same analysis?
Fictionwise,
Yes, I feel you are absolutely right that there’s a particular euphony that keeps the phrases frozen at certain times for us writers and readers and speakers and listeners. With your example of “body and soul” and “soul and body” there seems to have been a shift at different points in the history of books (if we restrict ourselves to those English books in google’s linguistic corpus of texts) –
https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=body+and+soul%2Csoul+and+body&year_start=1500&year_end=2014&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2Cbody%20and%20soul%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Csoul%20and%20body%3B%2Cc0
Anne Carson, who has the best ear for ancient Greek of anybody on the planet today, has written an essay on the “gender of sound” as put forth by men, such as Aristotle. (Note her first several footnotes). The real Aristotle and the Pseudo Aristotle both get due credit for perpetuating the myth that males sound normal and females sound aberrant; Carson’s essay is online here:
Click to access Carson.pdf
What sounds good, then, may just be in the ear of the listener. And yet, yes, I think you are correct that there are universals in Language, and in particular languages, that would make for some frozen phrases. The vowel sounds for words for “mother,” for example, tend to have the tongue higher and more fronted in the mouth than words for “father”; and the consonants tend to be more fronted and more voiced and more often made by both lips as in “mommy” and “ma ma” than with words like “daddy” and “pa pa.”
It’s when adults use words of gender and try to suggest that there’s something “Natural” and / or “God given” about the gender words matching sexed reality that tends to be dicey. What we usually see is not science in these cases but sexist hierarchies perpetuating patriarchy or the dominance of men that would silence women and girls and would relegate them always and only to certain domains like the home, the kitchen, the bedroom rather than the workplace or the office or the boardroom.
Thank you, Victoria, for your wonderful questions. And thanks for sharing your activism!! Successfully, I think, contemporary English no longer defaults to the masculine pronoun in conversation and in writing, because of thoughtful feminist intentions. There is still a long way to go for Ms vs. the marked Miss/Mrs compared with Mr.
The Hebrew transliterated comes out like this: zachar unekevah.
The Greek like this: arsen kai ThEly.
There are biblical passages such as Leviticus 3:6 where the sexes of animals are distinguished: zachar ‘ov nekevah (Heb transliteration); arsen E ThElu (Greek transliteration). The English equivalent for the conjunction is more of an “OR” than the “AND.”
As for Aquinas (and others like Augustine), yes, the debt in thinking to Aristotle is clear. In many instances it’s not only the Aristotelian method but also the language of Aristotle’s texts that are influences. Probably “Generation of Animals” and “History of Animals” by Aristotle more than “Physiognomonics” attributed to Aristotle provided the familiar phrases.
Your last two questions regarding Paul’s use of Greek to the Galatians will take me a little more time and care to answer. I read through his letter twice before writing my post. There’s some obvious play on the notions of Greekness, especially that of Titus, who was NOT Jewish and had foreskin. There is some conspicuous attention given to slavery as an institution, a metaphor for the Jerusalem Christianity. There is use of “generation” as in sexual procreation, the idea of semen/seed and of mothers, of AvRaHam, of Paul’s own mother, of Hagar from where Paul is writing from, of SaraH. It seems subversive to cold Greek rationality and rhetoric while using Greek forms and language to argue for a sort of post-Judaism universal-Judaism midrash. Not easy stuff to read since it appears to assume knowledge and methods of knowing and arguing that are not only Jewish but also Greekish. I may be able to write more more clearly later. It is striking that there is not a real parallel between the “Judahishness nor Hellenism” and the “slave nor free” and the “boyness-and-girlness.” Of course, I’m translating here into English just to tease out more a bit of etic “outsider” reading that might show something emic “insider.” Who is to say exactly what Paul intended? There is a rich poetry and a clear literary focus in his writing here! Thank you so much for the questions!!
Victoria,
Your questions really call for a more careful answer, and so I’ve found a little time to investigate:
On what grounds do you conclude that Paul is being more Hebrew/relational than Greek/dichotomous in Gal 3:28? It looks to me as if he’s deliberately invoking a set of hierarchically understood opposites, which seems more Greeky based on your argument.
Let me first respond by saying that there was among the Greeks around the time of Isocrates and Aristotle a great battle over “good and proper” τὸ ἑλληνίζειν, or correct Greek was already brewing. Plato and his Socrates were correcting sophists like Protagoras and Gorgias. Aristotle was the one who seems to have had the most “success” in laying out, principally, logically, using the oppositional binary, what was “good” and “not good” in the uses of the language.There’s a sort of Greek that women, like Aspasia and Sappho, used that was akin to the epic culture of Homer, the lore of Hesiod, and the later popular playwrights, that Aristotle worked against. So it’s Aristotelian Greekyness that the LXX translators seem to confront. Paul can’t ignore this, it seems, being himself a citizen of Rome (where the official Latin suffered an inferiority complex in the shadow of Alexander’s Great Greek project). The Alexandrian Jews, long before Paul, seemed to appreciate more what the Greek poets did with the language, as the LXX translators there in Alexandria set about rendering their Hebrew scriptures into Hellene.
This is a long answer just to say that Paul’s Greek wordplays in his Galatia letter deal with Semitic and biblical ideas expressed in ambiguous and poetic Hellene. (In other writings attributed to Paul, there is clear indication that he was aware of or was at least able to make use of Aristotle’s rhetoric, much more clear cut in contrast to the poetic stuff.)
It’s not clear to me that Paul is listing hierarchies in parallel.
Ἰουδαῖος / Ἕλλην – Jew OVER Greek?
δοῦλος / ἐλεύθερος – slave OVER free??!
ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ – male and feminine?
I’ve seen a number of arguments that rest heavily on that “and”/kai rather than “or”/oude(?) in the male/female pair. You’ve argued fairly convincingly that this phrase is a “frozen phrase”: how do the other phrases (greek and Jew, slave and free) look according to the same analysis?
The construction οὐκ ἔνι (“there’s no”) is fairly common as a frozen phrase.
The construction οὐκ ἔνι … οὐδὲ (“there’s no … and no” or “there’s neither … nor”) is not nearly as common. In Aristophanes’s play “Wasps” the Chorus at line 446 complains about two slaves who are ungrateful for the shoes and clothing their master so generously had provided to them; Eugene O’Neil renders that Greek in the following English with my bold font to emphasize the construction: “there is no gentleness in their look nor any recollection of the slippers of other days.”
And Paul’s constructions οὐκ ἔνι Ἰουδαῖος οὐδὲ Ἕλλην and οὐκ ἔνι δοῦλος οὐδὲ ἐλεύθερος are nowhere to be found in the corpus of digitized extant ancient Greek texts. Do note that his syntax has first Jew then Greek, first slave then free, so the parallelism would, at least if word order were important, does not suggest parallel hierarchies.
The closest thing I can find to this is a line from Euripides’s “Trojan Women”; at 477 there’s this οὓς Τρῳὰς οὐδ’ Ἑλληνὶς οὐδὲ βάρβαρος γυνὴ τεκοῦσα κομπάσειεν ἄν ποτε. George Theodoridis has for this: “No other woman, no Trojan, no Greek, no barbarian woman can boast to having children like mine.” And “children such as no Trojan or Hellenic or barbarian mother ever had to boast” is G. Murray’s translation.
The best translation of Galatians 3:27-28 that I have found (the casual colloquialism of English and some historical misunderstandings about Semitic languages aside) is N. T. Wright’s:
Wright explains long before he produced his entire NT translation:
What Wright is right about is that Paul is using a frozen phrase from Genesis. What he could have noticed is that this LXX phrase so frozen is not just in Genesis 1. It’s in Genesis 5. Maybe as importantly or even more important is that it’s in the Noah story, where the Lord commands that animals be saved ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ.
This insistence on the unit in the Hebrew bible reflected in its Hebraic Hellene translation is what Paul is playing on. Paul makes a big deal out of the facts
that the LXX has a singular phrase (ἑνός) for “seed” (Gal 3:16);
that the LXX has one God (Θεὸς εἷς ἐστιν, in Gal 3:20, which invokes the Hellene version of Shema Yisrael, or Deuteronomy 6:4 vs. disparate plurality);
and that, for example, the “fruit” of the spirit is one in contrast to the plural “works” of the flesh (Gal 5).
Paul is taking advantage of a common, then-biblical frozen phrase that emphasizes the unity of the sexes. This is in contrast to Aristotelian biologies, that would insist on male over female oppositional and binary difference.
Thank you for your thoughtful replies, Kurk, which I’ll want to read over again. One thing I did immediately notice in response to your pointing out that Paul doesn’t seem to be making parallel hierarchies here:
is a different kind of poetic form, supposing that the taken-for-granted hierarchies were Jew over Greek and free over slave:
Reading those first two lines as inverted pairs of hierarchies makes the third line a culmination of the argument and actually makes some form-al sense, for me at least, of why that third line would be “and” not “or”.
And that’s also consistent with your conclusion that Paul is interestingly playing with singular vs plural to emphasize unity, though it gets there in a different direction.
Victoria,
I love the algebra you offer to illustrate the patterns or lines of Paul’s argument possibly. What does seem clearest to me is that he’s invoking ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ as a unit that appears in his Bible but also that has a Greek biological history as well, the same phrase frozen with entirely different emphases.
What is the most difficult part of the Galatians letter for me is the discussion of Hagar as in contrast to and somehow under Sarah. I know feminist readings tend to suggest profound sexism here. I don’t know how to read this in the whole context very well.